Question 45

Q: Why does the Bible refer to Jesus as the Son of Man?

Asked by: Kyle


A: Good question on your part there, Kyle. Jesus liked to refer to Himself as the Son of Man.

In order to understand that phrase, you have to go back to Daniel 7 in the Old Testament where you read about the Son of Man as the Ancient of Days, coming with His kingdom, with dominion, and glory and power. It’s a reference to deity.

In Matthew 26, when Jesus was before the Sanhedrin He makes this remarkable statement, “But I tell you that from now on you shall see the Son of Man, seated at the right hand of power, coming on the clouds of heaven.”  Those around Him understood that He was claiming deity. That’s why the text goes on to say that the high priest tore his clothes because he thought he’d heard blasphemy.

Isn’t it interesting? Jesus was both man and God. So even though the expression “Son of Man” also refers to His deity, it’s a reminder that indeed He was man—and that’s the uniqueness of Christ. Both God and Man; both natures joined together in one Person forever. Son of Man, Son of God.

Scripture references

  • Daniel 7
  • Matthew 26

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